I’m trying to look at all options here…my 1st mortgage is at 160K and my 2nd is at 40K. With the market, currently it is worth around $190, so I can’t refi them into one fixed loan. They are going to adjust in January 2010 and I’m trying to get this sorted out before the rates go up. Is it possible for me to refi the 160K loan to a fixed rate and leave the 40K loan where it is?
The rates may go up or they may go down…there is no guarantee and no one knows what they are going to do.
If you knew the rates were going up would you have signed up for an ARM? Of course you wouldn’t b/c you thought they were going to stay the same or go down…well, they didn’t.
The problem is, you’ll have to bring $10K to closing in order to refinance your first mortgage b/c you appear to be upside down in value.
Like Matt said, normally all you do is get the second lienholder to subordinate, but they won’t do that if it leaves you in an overall negative equity situation.
Related posts:
- Can a default on a 2nd mortgage cause the the 1st to go into foreclosure if payments are current on the 1st?
- What happens to 2nd in a foreclosure when the 1st mortgage is not even satisfied on a sale?
- Can a family member leave another family member a house with a 1st mortgage still on it in their will?
- can an overdue 2nd mortgage put home in default if 1st mortgage is timely?
- Where does negative equity leave a not current 2nd mortgage?




